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Prof Dimitri, CPA, CMA, CFP®'s avatar

Isn't a lot of that allocation series mechanical rather than a demand signal? Since it's equities ÷ (equities + bonds + cash), an investor who never rebalances will show a rising "allocation" simply because stocks went up. If so, the allocation measure is largely a proxy for how far stocks have run relative to bonds, which means the predictive chart may just be restating the familiar mean-reversion story (high valuations → low future returns). There's no way to tell from the first graph alone, since it captures both the price effect and real allocation decisions. If it's mostly mechanical, then controlling for valuations (e.g., CAPE) should remove the allocation effect on returns in your second graph.

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